Remember that Ananias and Sapphira were investigated, accused, judged, sentenced, and executed — all of it carried out by a single person: Peter, who acted at the same time as investigator, witness and accuser, judge, jury, and even executioner —
all these actions within a faith-based organization, the primitive congregation of disciples in the first century (Acts, chapter 5, verses 1 to 10)..

Was the account of Ananias and Sapphira something common in the first century? Were there many similar accounts? Did this event set a precedent for those who were (and for those who would become) disciples of the early congregation of the first century?

There were no other accounts in the greek scriptures similar to the account of Ananias and Sapphira — that is, involving a single person, a senior member of the early congregation of disciples (in the first century), and one (or more) newer members, regarding a financial transaction (and the donation the organization expected). Although there are several other records of the same offense for which Ananias and Sapphira were accused, with identical aspects, and many of those cases were also handled and "resolved" by Peter.

However, with the other members of the organization mentioned in the greek scriptures, even though the offense was the same, the "way of resolving it" was different, and in fact, more than one way of resolving the same offense was recorded.

In view of this situation, one of the questions that arises is: were they concerned about the possibility of the organization becoming known for frequent reports similar to what happened with Ananias and Sapphira?

Thus, instead of producing more records from the apostles covering the period of the first century when the "apostles" and elders in Jerusalem were actively engaged according to Matthew 18:20, - or about Peter in light of what is written in Matthew 16:18-19, about 51 percent of the Greek Scriptures are attributed to the apostle Paul, and in a large portion of these writings, Paul is explicitly identified.

So what happened then? Was there an "organizational change" in the way matters were handled? If there had been, why is this change not reported, along with the reasons for it? It would also be contradictory to other biblical verses (and accounts), such as the formation of the nation of Israel, with laws, statutes, and regulations established right from the beginning, without room for a possible "organizational change."

This question ("what happened then?") has a purpose:

Something similar to what was attributed to Ananias and Sapphira occurred some time later, also involving an apostle, as stated in 2 Timothy 4:14.

It says: "Alexander the coppersmith did me much harm; the Lord will repay him according to his works." (Alexander Ἀλέξανδρος, the coppersmith χαλκεύς, did ἐνδείκνυμι to me μοι much πολύς harm κακός; the Lord κύριος will repay ἀποδίδωμι him αὐτός according to κατά his αὐτός works ἔργον.)

See, it is the same situation that had been attributed to Ananias and Sapphira. What Paul states in 2 Timothy 4:14 involves:

Fraud or harm against authority (according to the structure described in the records of the Greek Scriptures), including:

Peculatus – The classic term for the misappropriation of public property by a public official or embezzlement due to one's position.

Falsus publicus – Falsification or fraud in documents of some authority.

Simulatio – Simulation or fraud to deceive authorities.

Dolus malus – Intentional fraud to deceive another person or the public administration.

Crimen falsi – Crime of forgery, fraud, or the use of false documents before an authority.

Damnum iniuria datum – Damage caused unjustly (a generic term for destruction or vandalism of property).

Locupletatio ex crimine – Enrichment resulting from the exploitation of a crime.

And what happened? In 1 Timothy 1:20, Paul mentions Alexander and Hymenaeus as having been "handed over to Satan"... so that they would be taught through discipline not to blaspheme.

Why this difference—why did the same thing not happen to Alexander as happened to Ananias and Sapphira (why didn’t Alexander fall dead, fulminated)?

Moreover, the account of Ananias and Sapphira, as already noted, is obscure and presents aspects that diverge from other texts on the same subject in the Greek and Hebrew Scriptures. (For more on this topic, see the article: How did the early congregation of first-century disciples manage their finances? And how have the JWs handled them from the 1880s until today?)

Why did Peter, to whom the statement recorded in Matthew 16:18-19 was made — "I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven. Whatever you bind on earth will have been bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will have been loosed in heaven." — why did he handle the case of Ananias and Sapphira in the way it is presented in the record of the Greek Scriptures, and after this precedent, no similar event was ever recorded again in the Greek Scriptures?

The reason for this question is that there was another case similar to that of Ananias and Sapphira: the case of Alexander the coppersmith. And there were other cases (as indicated in 1 Peter 1:2).

See what is recorded in 1 Peter 2:1-3:

"So rid yourselves of all malice, deceit, hypocrisy, envy, and all slander. 2 Like newborn babies, develop a strong desire for the unadulterated milk of the word, so that by it you may grow to salvation, 3 since you have experienced that the Lord is good."

What is happening here? Peter, who, when saying that Ananias practiced deceit, stated that it was a "sin against the spirit" and declared that Ananias should fall dead, fulminated down at that very moment (and the account states that this indeed happened), now says: If someone practices deceit (1 Peter 2:1-2), rid yourself of deceit?

Is deceit no longer a betrayal against the spirit? Will there no longer be members of the early congregation and first-century disciples fulminated dead on the spot for having practiced deceit?

And what about what is written in Matthew 7:1-4?

"Stop judging so that you will not be judged; 2 for with the judgment you are judging, you will be judged, and with the measure you are measuring, they will measure to you. 3 So why do you look at the speck in your brother’s eye but do not notice the log in your own eye? 4 Or how can you say to your brother, ‘Let me remove the speck from your eye,’ when, look! There is a log in your own eye?"

Did Peter and Paul ever apply or practice this text?

And what about Peter, at one moment declaring that deceit (as alleged) is a sin against the spirit that incurs even immediate physical death (with an actual record of two fatalities for this reason), and then later saying that it is not quite so—that it is something the person should self-examine and gradually correct over time, and that (obviously) it does not incur a sin against the spirit or immediate physical death?

What do these records found in the Greek Scriptures actually mean?

After what happened with Ananias and Sapphira, and with Alexander the coppersmith, 2,000 years ago, Peter — probably already somewhere in Babylon (or maybe even in Rome) — began to speak in a way that, if someone were to hear it today, they might think it was from the latest video of a coach or influencer on YouTube with thousands of followers, likes, and views. 1 Peter 2:1–3